MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) What is differentiation in planetary geology?
A) the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
B) the process by which different types of minerals form a conglomerate rock
C) any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently from another planet's surface
D) any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves differently from another part of the same planet's surface
E) any process by which a planet evolves differently from its moons
2) Heat escapes from the planet's surface into space by thermal radiation. Planets radiate
almost entirely in the wavelength range of the
A) infrared.
B) radio.
C) visible.
D) ultraviolet.
E) none of the above
3) What are the conditions necessary for a terrestrial planet to have a strong magnetic field?
A) a molten metallic core only
B) fast rotation only
C) a rocky mantle only
D) both a molten metallic core and reasonably fast rotation
E) both a metal core and a rocky mantle
4) A planet is most likely to have tectonic activity if it has
A) low surface gravity.
B) high surface gravity.
C) low internal temperature.
D) high internal temperature.
E) a dense atmosphere.
5) Olympus Mons is a
A) shield volcano on Mars.
B) stratovolcano on Mercury.
C) large lava plain on the Moon.
D) shield volcano on Venus.
E) stratovolcano on the Moon.
6) Which of the following worlds has the most substantial atmosphere?
A) Mercury B) Venus C) the Moon D) Mars E) Earth
7) What is the troposphere?
A) the lowest layer in the atmosphere
B) the part of the atmosphere that absorbs optical light
C) the part of the atmosphere that absorbs ultraviolet
D) the part of the atmosphere that absorbs X-rays
E) the highest layer in the atmosphere
8) Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io?
A) It is too small to have been bombarded by planetesimals in the early solar system.
B) Jupiter's strong gravity attracted the planetesimals more strongly than Io and thus none
landed on its surface.
C) Io did have impact craters but they have all been buried in lava flows.
D) Any craters that existed have been eroded through the strong winds on Io's surface.
E) Io's thick atmosphere obscures the view of the craters.
9) What is Jupiter's Great Red Spot?
A) the place where reddish particles from Io impact Jupiter's surface
B) a hurricane that comes and goes on Jupiter
C) a large mountain peak poking up above the clouds
D) a long\'2Dlived, high\'2Dpressure storm
E) the place where Jupiter's aurora is most visible
10) What is a Roche zone?
A) a bright layer of gas on Jupiter
B) the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held together only by
gravity
C) the region within a planet's magnetic field where charged particles accumulate
D) the region surrounding a planet where it may have large moons
E) a region where gravitational resonances clear a gap in a planet's rings
11) Which of the Jovian planets have rings?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
E) all of the above
12) An icy leftover planetesimal orbiting the Sun is
A) a comet.
B) a meteor.
C) an asteroid.
D) a meteorite.
E) possibly any of the above.
13) A typical shooting star in a meteor shower is caused by a __________ entering the Earth's
atmosphere.
A) boulder-size particle from an asteroid
B) boulder-size particle from a comet
C) pea-size particle from an asteroid
D) pea-size particle from a comet
E) microscopic particle of interstellar dust
14) Why does the plasma tail of a comet always point away from the Sun?
A) The solar wind blows the ions directly away from the Sun.
B) Radiation pressure from the Sun's light pushes the ions away.
C) The conservation of the angular momentum of the tail keeps it always pointing away from
the Sun.
D) Gases from the comet, heated by the Sun, push the tail away from the Sun.
E) It is allergic to sunlight.
15) What is Charon?
A) Pluto's moon
B) the largest known asteroid
C) the largest known comet
D) one of the Galilean moons of Jupiter
E) a moon of Neptune
16) What drives the motion of the continental plates on Earth?
A) convection cells in the mantle
B) lava flows in trenches along the sea floor
C) the Coriolis force
D) the Earth's magnetic field
E) tidal forces
17) Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
A) Burning fuel warms the planet.
B) Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
C) Burning depletes the amount of ozone, thereby warming the planet.
D) Burning produces infrared light, which is then trapped by existing greenhouse gases.
E) All of the above are true.
18) What two forces are balanced in what we call gravitational equilibrium?
A) the electromagnetic force and gravity
B) outward pressure and the strong force
C) outward pressure and gravity
D) the strong force and gravity
E) the strong force and kinetic energy
19) From the center outward, which of the following lists the "layers" of the Sun in the correct
order?
A) core, radiation zone, convection zone, corona, chromosphere, photosphere
B) core, corona, radiation zone, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere
C) core, radiation zone, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona
D) core, convection zone, radiation zone, corona, chromosphere, photosphere
E) core, convection zone, radiation zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona
20) What happens to energy in the convection zone of the Sun?
A) Energy slowly leaks outward through the diffusion of photons that repeatedly bounce off
ions and electrons.
B) Energy is produced in the convection zone by nuclear fusion.
C) Energy is transported outward by the rising of hot plasma and the sinking of cooler plasma.
D) Energy is consumed in the convection zone by the creation of electrons and positrons.
21) Which of the following statements about the sunspot cycle is not true?
A) The number of sunspots peaks approximately every 11 years.
B) With each subsequent peak in the number of sunspots, the magnetic polarity of the Sun is the
reverse of the previous peak.
C) The rate of nuclear fusion in the Sun peaks about every 11 years.
D) The cycle is truly a cycle of magnetic activity, and variations in the number of sunspots are
only one manifestation of the cycle.
E) The number of solar flares peaks about every 11 years.
22) Why do sunspots appear dark in pictures of the Sun?
A) They are too cold to emit any visible light.
B) They actually are fairly bright but appear dark against the even brighter background of the
surrounding Sun.
C) They are holes in the solar surface through which we can see to deeper, darker layers of the
Sun.
D) They are tiny black holes, absorbing all light that hits them.
E) They emit light in other wavelengths that we can't see.
23) Hydrogen fusion in the Sun requires a temperature (in Kelvin) of
A) thousands of degrees.
B) millions of degrees.
C) billions of degrees.
D) trillions of degrees.
E) any temperature, as long as gravity is strong enough.
24) If the distance between us and a star is doubled, with everything else remaining the same,
the luminosity
A) is decreased by a factor of four, and the apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of four.
B) is decreased by a factor of two, and the apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of two.
C) remains the same, but the apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of two.
D) the luminosity remains the same, but the apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of four.
E) is decreased by a factor of four, but the apparent brightness remains the same.
25) Which of the following terms is given to a pair of stars that appear to change positions in
the sky, indicating that they are orbiting one another?
A) visual binary
B) eclipsing binary
C) spectroscopic binary
D) double star
E) none of the above
26) On a Hertzsprung\'2DRussell diagram, where would we find stars that are cool and
luminous?
A) upper right B) lower right C) upper left D) lower left
1) Answer: A
2) Answer: A
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: D
5) Answer: A
6) Answer: B
7) Answer: A
8) Answer: C
9) Answer: D
10) Answer: B
11) Answer: E
12) Answer: A
13) Answer: D
14) Answer: A
15) Answer: A
16) Answer: A
17) Answer: B
18) Answer: C
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: C
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: B
23) Answer: B
24) Answer: D
25) Answer: A
26) Answer: A
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