Mis325 Network Security Plus Questions and Answers

Chapter 1

1. What is the name for a network that connects 2 or more local area networks (LANS) together, sometimes across a large geographic area?
2. Which of the following operating systems support peer-to-peer networking?
3. You work for a small company, where 4 users need network access. The budget is tight, so the network must be as inexpensive as possible. What type of network should you install?
4. The _____ is the cable or communications technology that computers must access to communicate across a network.
5. A ________ is needed to attach a computer to a network.
6. Which of the following characteristics are associated with a peer-to-peer network?
7. A server computer shares resources for others to use.
8. A cable interconnects 5 computers & a printer in a single office so that users can share the printer. This configuration is an example of a ___________.
9. 6 computers in Schenectady & 2 in Minneapolis share a set of documents and a common database. This configuration must be a_______.
10. In the Flatiron Building, 140 computers all use Microsoft office. This configuration must be a _______ .
11. At Clairfield Community College, 300 computers at the North & South campuses (2 miles apart) interconnect to share files, printers, email, and a database. This configuration must be a ________.
12. A network that permits communication among devices such as cell phones & PDA’s, but that has limited range is a ___________.
13. Computers that can act as servers to other machine but can also request network resources should be called _____ .
14. Server-based networks may include any of the following server types.
15. Select the 2 major kinds of networks.
16. Any 2 computers that communicate across a network must share a common language called a ______ .
17. Of the assertions listed below, which are true disadvantages of peer-to-peer networking?
18. The primary reason to install a network is to ____ resources and services.
19. Some resources shared on a network typically include ________, such as: printers, plotters or tape devices.
20. Networked applications such as e-mail permit users to communicate more effectively across a network. True False
21. On a peer-to-peer network, there is always at least one dedicated machine called a server. T or F
22. On peer-to-peer network, each user must act as _________.
23. Peer-to-peer networks are not suitable if __________ .
24. The standard model for networks with 10 or more is _____ .
25. A server does not ordinarily function as a client. True or False
26. Servers that perform specific roles, such as fax servers, applications servers or communications servers, may best be described as _____ .
27. A network that combines peer-to-peer and server-based functionality is best as a _________ .
28. Of the following systems components, which does a server require more of than a client.
29. Of the following operating systems, which does not function as a network server?
30. Which of the following specialized servers is not included with Windows 2000?
31. Which of the following is the best expansion for the acronym SAN?
32. Which of the following is the best expansion for the acronym?

ANSWERS

Chapter 1

1. Wide Area Network
2. Windows 95 Windows 98 Windows XP Pro Windows 2000 server
3. Peer-to-peer network (10 or less)
4. medium
5. Network Interface Card (NIC)
6. Easy to install, inexpensive, user-managed resources
7. True.
8. Local Area Network
9. Wide Area Network
10. Stand alone
11. Wide Area Network
12. Personal Area Network
13. Peers
14. File & Print servers, application servers, communication servers fax servers
15. Peer-to-peer & Server-based
16. protocol.
17. Individual resources may each have own passwords, No centralized security
18. share
19. peripheral devices
20. True
21. False
22. administrator
23. tight security is required
24. Server-Based
25. TRUE
26. specialized servers
27. combination networks
28. RAM, faster CPU, disk space
29. Window 95
30. Fax servers
31. Storage-Area Network Chapter 2

1. The term _____ refers to the physical layout of a network’s computers, cables and other resources.
2. Joining together the computers in a network at a central point creates a star topology. Which of the following statements is true of star topology network?

.

3. A bus topology network does not require terminators. True or FALSE
4. Which of the following statements is true of a ring network? On the network.
5. The ______________ topology is the most fault tolerant of the hybrid designs.
6. What are 2 advantages of a star topology network?
7. What cable type is most often associated with a bus topology network?
8. A cable break in a bus network does not affect network communications T or F
9. In a bus network, if the ends of the cable are not terminated, __________occurs.
10. Connecting computers to form a straight line creates a ____ topology network.
11. How do switches provide better performance than hubs?
12. Because of its central connection point, a ____ topology network requires a more intricate cable installation.
13. What is the central connection point in a wireless network called?
14. What are 2 advantages of a ring topology network?
15. A bus network is referred to as ________ network.
16. List 3 reasons to keep a network diagram current.
17. The term ______ describes the loss of a signal’s strength over a distance.
18. What term describes the special packet used in a ring networks?
19. A cable break in a star topology network does not affect network communications for the entire network. TRUE or FALSE
20. FDDI is a form of which standard topology?
21. A ring network is a _____ topology network because the computers are responsible for regenerating the signal.
22. Mainframe computers first used the ____ topology.
23. A(n) _____ hub regenerates the signals it receives and sends them down all other parts.
    

Chapter 2 ANSWER

1. topology
2. Star requires significantly more cabling than a bus network
3. FALSE
4. Provides equal access to all
5. Mesh
6. Easy to add new computers or modify the network

Centralization enhances network monitoring & mgt

Single computer failure does not affect network

7. Coxial
8. False
9. signal bounce
10. Bus
11. Switch determines which & sends signal to that computer only
12. Star
13. Hub or wireless access point
14. All computers have equal access & each computer regenerates the signal
15. Passive
16. Helps in location problems

Shows what resources are available

Easier to add or update system

17. attenuation
18. TOKEN
19. TRUE
20. RING
21. Active
22. STAR
23. multiport

Chapter 3

1. Of the following cabling elements, which does not commonly occur in coaxial cable?
2. If the center conductor and the wire braid make contact in a coaxial cable, the resulting condition is called a:
3. What surrounds the center conductor in a coaxial cable to separate it from the wire braid?
4. The type of fiber-optic connector that provides high density and requires only one connector for two cables is the ____________.
5. The condition that requires cables not to exceed a recommended maximum length is called ______.
6. What component of a coaxial cable actually carries data?
7. The space between a false ceiling and the true ceiling where heating & cooling air circulates is called _________.
8. Cable sheathed with _________ material should not be routed in or walls.
9. The fire-resistant cable specified by fire and building codes is rated as __________.
10. To build the network in your New York City headquarters, you must run a cable through shaft from the customer service center on the second floor, all the way up to corporate offices on the 37th floor. The distance is 550 meters. What type of cable must you use.
11. Which of the following is not suitable for network of any kind?
12. Name the type connector most commonly used with TP network wiring.
13. Both thinwire and thickwire Ethernet use a form of BNC connector True or False
14. You are hired to install a network at the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA). The agency wants zero chance of electronic eavesdroppingon their network on their network. What kind of cable should you use?
15. You’re preparing to install a conventional Ethernet network in your new office building, but your boss tells you to be ready handle a switchover to 1 Gbps Ethernet in 2004. What two types of cable could you install?
16. When two cables run side-by-side traveling down one wire may interfere with signals traveling on the other wire. What is this phenomenon called?
17. XYZ Corp. operates a thinnet network. When the network administrator goes to the supply room looking for some network cable, he finds a suitable length that ends in BNC connectors. It’s labeled RG-62. Will this cable work?
18. Which of the following cabling elements does not occur in fiber-optic cable?
19. What benefits does shielding confer on shielded twisted-pair cables (Choose all that apply).
20. If you want to share an Internet connections among three home computers, but find it difficult to run cables, what type of network should you use?
21. You currently are using 11 Mbps wireless in your LAN, but are considering an upgrade to 54 Mbps speed. For best compatibility, which wireless standard should yuou choose for this higher bandwidth?
22. Baseband transmission sends signals in which of the following forms?
23. Broadband transmissions sends signals in which of the following forms?
24. The devices used to manage transmission and reception of data between a wired LAN and wireless components are:
25. The device used to link buildings without a cable is a:
26. Which of the following technologies might be used in a wireless LAN (Choose all that apply).
27. Spread-spectrum transmissions occur in which of the following forms?(Choose all that apply).
28. Which of the following wireless technologies would not be appropriate to link two buildings?(Choose all that apply)
29. To support a population of mobile computing users, which wireless technology is most appropriate?

Chapter 3 ANSWERS

1. fiber-optic
2. short
3. insulating layer
4. MT-RJ
5. attenuation
6. core
7. plenum
8. PVC (polyvinyl chloride)
9. plenum
10. Fiber- optic
11. Category 1
12. RJ-45
13. True
14. fiber-optic
15. category 6 & 5 fiber optic
16. crosstalk
17. it won’t work
18. wire braid
19. lowers susceptibility from interference increases maximum signal length
20. 802.11b
21. 802.11a
22. digital
23. analog
24. access points
25. wireless bridge

26. narrow-band radio infrared laser microwave

27. frequency hopping & direct sequence

28. reflective infrared low power single frequency

29. spread spectrum radio






Chapter 4

1. Of the following PC bus types, which supports 32-bit data transmission? (Choose all that

apply.)

2. Which of the following statement is true?
3. When installing a NIC driver, the configuration information you supply to the installation software must ____________ the way you configured the hardware.
4. A network adapter card converts serial data from the computer into parallel data from the network for transmission and reverses that process on reception. True or False
5. Today’s most popular PC bus width are:
6. The PCI-X bus standard pushes data transfer rates to _______________.
7. Where is temporary data stored on a network adapter to act as a buffer for excess input or output?
8. To work properly, which characteristics of a network adapter must match those of the network medium (Choose all that supply)
9. If two devices share a common IRQ, the most likely outcome is that ____________.
10. Which of the following methods may be used to configure a multiway NIC for a particular media interface? (Choose all that apply)
11. Which of the following PC buses can function in 10- or 32-bit mode and also accommodate

independent functioning from multiple bus masters? Choose all that apply

12. Which of the following Microsoft operating systems support Plug and Play? (Choose all that apply)
13. A 16-bit ISA adapter works in which of these following types of PC bus slots? (choose all

apply)

14. Which of the following NIC performance enhancements is recommended for use in a server?

(Choose all that apply)

15. Of the following items, which are most likely to be required when manually configuring a

NIC? Choose all that apply

16. The NIC device that translates digital data into signals for transmission and signals into digital

data on receipt is called a (n) __________________________.

17. Which of the following roles does a network adapter play in connection a computer to a

networking medium? (Choose all that apply)

18. Which of the following factors contributed to the development of new data buses on PC;s?

(Choose all that apply)

19. The POST sequence is intended to perform which of the following tasks?
20. Which of the following driver attach architectures is supported only in Windows 98, Windows 2000 and Windows XP?
21. A special circuitry device that can be inserted into some NIC’s to support booting the system across the network is called a _____________.
22. Which of the following buses or serial interfaces supports the highest bandwidth? (Hint: to calculate bandwidth, multiply maximum speed in MHz by bus width.)
23. Which serial standard improves on the older version by up to 40 times the existing data transfer rate?
24. Which emerging serial bus technology will bring data transfer rates up to 8 GB/s?
25. The address burned into ROM on a NIC is called the ______________.
26. Advantages of a remote boot adapter include which of the following? (Choose all apply)
27. The ODI drive model was defined by __________.
28. Choosing a NIC from the ____________ almost guarantees that the NIC will install a without errors in the Windows 2000 operating system.
29. The type of connector used for a 10BaseT network is the _________.
30. The type of connector used for a thinnet network is the ____________.

Chapter 4 ANSWERS
1) PCI MCA EISA
2) A driver is small program that mediates between computers Op & hardware device
3) agree with
4) False
5) 16 & 32
6) 1 GB/s
7) on board RAM
8) network technology connector type transmission speed media type
9) neither device works
10) Jumper settings DIO Switches software configurations boot configuration(PAGE 132)
11) EISA MCA PCI
12) Windows 311 Window 95 Window NT Workstation 4.0
13) ISA EISA
14) 32 bit bus or higher , DMA , Shared memory , bus mastering
15) IRQ , base I/O port , base memory address
16) transceiver
17) All
18) NO E
19) Check the CPU, motherboard, and peripherals at PC boot time
20) WDM
21) Boot PROM
22) PCI-x
23) USB 2.0
24) PCI Express
25) MAC address
26) increased liability increase security virus protection
27) Novell
28) HCL
29) RJ-45
30) BNC







Chapter 5 = Making Networks Work

1. The OSI reference model divides networking activity into how many layers?
2. With the OSI reference model, the job of each layer is to provide services to the next higher and to make accessible the details of how its services are implemented?
3. Which of the two following types are added at each layer as a PDU makes its way down a protocol stack?
4. Layers that act as if they communicate directly with each other across the network are called _____.
5. Write the number that corresponds to each of the following layers in the OSI reference model (for example, 7=top 1=bottom)
6. The ___________ layer handles the creation of data frames.
7. Which layer handles general network access, flow control, & recovery from network-failures.
8. The ________ layer governs how a network adapter must be attached tyo the networking medium.
9. Which layer determines the route a packet takes from sender to receiver?
10. The _____ layer handles conversion of data from platform-specific application formats to a generic, network ready representation (and vice versa).
11. Which layer is responsible for setting up, and ending ongoing exchanges of information across a network?
12. The _________- layer handles fragmentation of long packets for transmission and reassembly of fragmented packets on receipt.
13. A family of related networking protocols is called a __________.
14. Which of the following elements might occur within a data frame?
15. CRC is an acronym for __________.
16. How many times is a CRC calculated?
17. Of the following Project 802 specifications, which belong at the MAC sublayer?
18. Which layer of the OSI reference model does Project 802 break into two sublayers?
19. What are the names of the two sublayers specified as part of Project 802?
20. Which IEEE 802 sublayer communicates directly with a network adapter and handles error-free data delivery between 2 computers on a network?
21. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Ethernet?
22. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to token ring?
23. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to token bus?
24. Which IEEE standard applies to wireless networks?
25. Under which 802 sublayer are access methods such as CSAMA/CI and Demand Priortiy found?
26. Which of the following acronyms represent popular protocol suites?
27. Which of the following definitions best describes a redirecort?
28. Which IEEE standard govern Gigabit Ethernet?
29. At which Data-Link sublayer does the network address burned into every NIC reside?
    
    

Chapter 5 ANSWERS

1. Seven
2. False
3. Formatting & Addressing
4. peers
5. Application(7) Presentation(6) Session(5) Transport(4) Network(3) Data Link(2) Physical (1)
6. Data Link
7. Transport
8. Physical
9. Network
10. Presentation
11. Session
12. Transport
13. Protocol Suite
14. network addresses forsender & receiver Control information for frame type

payload data CRC

15. Cyclical Redundancy Check
16. twice once before transmission & once upon receipt
17. 802.2
18. Data Link
19. Logical Link Control (LLC) Media Access Control (MAC)
20. Logical Link Control (LLC)
21. 802.3
22. 802.5
23. 802.4
24. 802.11
25. MAC
26. IPX\SPX TCP\IP NetBIOS
27. a software services that handles resource requests, passes on local requests for local service & redirects network access requests
28. 802.3
29. Median Access Control
30. True

Chapter 6=Network Communications & Protocols

1. Novell’s IPX/SPX protocols are based on the IBM SNA protocol suite. T or F
2. Which of the following terms describe data being sent across a network?
3. The subnet mask of an IP address _____________.
4. A network protocol operates in which layers of the OSI model?
5. Which of the following IP address cannot be sent across the Internet?
6. As data travels the OSI model the _________ layer is responsible for splitting the data into packages.
7. The _________ channel access method is generally used in ring topology netrworks?
8. NetBEUI is well suited for large enterprise networks because it is very fast. T or F
9. Which of the following is not a benefit of the contention-based channel access method?
10. Logical-address-to-physical-address resolution is performed by the ______protocol.
11. Which of the following protocols provide connectionless service?
12. Which of the following are advantages of polling?
13. The ________ channel access method is best suited for time-critical communications.
14. A packet trailer contains which of the following information?
15. Which of the following protocols provides client\server functionality in a Novell NetWare environment?
16. When using TCP\IP, computers on the same network segment must have the same ________.
17. Which of the following channel access methods is used in 100VG – anyLan networks?
18. A connection-oriented protocol provides fast, but unreliable, service. T or F
19. When two computers using IPX\SPX cannot communicate, what is likely to be the cause?
20. Which protocol can automatically configure a computer’s IP address and subnet mask?
21. Which access control mechanism uses a device to check each potential sender to see if it wants to transmit data?
22. Which access control mechanism circulates one or more special transmission tickets to control media access?
23. Which access control mechanism uses Collision Sense Multiple Access\Collision Detection hardware to control media access?
24. Which access control mechanism provides the highest bandwidth to the senders and receivers it interconnects?

Answers Chapter 6

1. False
2. Packet Frame Data frame
3. Defines which part of the address specifies the network & which part specifies the host ID
4. Data Link Transport
5. 172.19.243.254
6. Transport
7. Token passing
8. False
9. Works well in high traffic environments Allows certain computers to be assigned priority
10. ARP
11. UDP IPX
12. Equal access allow for priority assignment
13. Switching
14. Error checking information
15. NCP
16. Network number subnet mask
17. Demand Priority
18. False
19. Different IPX frame types
20. DHCP
21. Polling
22. Token Ring
23. Ethernet
24. Switching

Chapter 7 = Network Architectures

1. What are the different implementations of 100 Mbps Ethernet? (Choose all that apply)
2. Which channel access method does ARCnet use?
3. How many token rings in an FDDI network?
4. Which Ethernet frame type does TCP/IP use?
5. The function of the active monitor is _____________.
6. How many cable segments can be populated in a coaxial network?
7. How are ARCnet NIC’s addressed?
8. What is the maximum transmission speed for a LocalTalk Network?
9. What is the function of the CRC in the Ethernet?
10. What device serves as the central point of connection in an FDDI network?
11. To what devices can passive hubs be connected in an ARCnet envirorment?
12. Which standards did IBM use to define its cabling system?
13. How many rings are used in a token ring environment?
14. The ________ Etherernet frame type complies with the IEEE standard.
15. The _________network architecture uses the demand priority channel access method.
16. In what order is the token passed in an ARCnet network?
17. Which Ethernet standard uses thicknet cable?
18. What is the transmission speed for ARCnet?
19. Which token ring cable type is used to connect computers to MAU’s through conduit or inside walls?
20. Which network architecture can automatically correct for cable failures?
21. Data is sent on the _________ ring in an FDDI network?
22. A vampire tap performs what function in a network?
23. What are hubs called in a token ring network?
24. What are two advantages of FDDI?
25. Which channel access method does AppleTalk use?
26. What kind of connections does ATM establish before commencing network communications?
27. Which of the following IEEE specifications applies to 100BaseX?
28. Which two of the following optical carrier signaling rates represent the upper and lower end of ATM’s normal operating bandwidth?
29. 100BaseT and 1000BaseX both fall under the same IEEE specifications. T or F
30. Which of the following capabilities does ATM’s fixed-length (53-byte) cell structure enable?
31. What is the proposed standard for 10GB Ethernet?
32. The document governing cable modem standards is ___________.
33. The maximum number of class 1 fast Ethernet repeaters allowed between stations is ______________.

Answers Chapter 7

1. 100Base T4 100BaseTX 100BaseFX
2. token passing
3. 2 primary & secondary
4. Ethernet II
5. manages the beaconing process
6. 3
7. Jumpers
8. 230.4
9. verfys data has reached its destination undamaged
10. concentrators
11. active computer
12. American Wire Gauge
13. one
14. 802.2
15. 100VG-AnyLAN
16. 1 to 255
17. 10Base5
18. 2.5
19. Type 1
20. Token Ring FDDI
21. primary
22. attach receiver to thicknet cable
23. MAU MSAU
24. fast, reliable, covers long distances
25. CSMA/CA
26. virtual circuit
27. 802.3z
28. OC-3 to OC-12
29. false
30. all but E
31. 802.3ae
32. DOCSIS
33. 1

Chapter 8=Simple network Operations

1. Nos were originally add-ons to standalone operating systems T or F
2. Regarding Windows NT Server or Windows 2000 Server, what is the most important aspect of a server’s responsibilities or purpose that must be decided before installation.
3. Which of the following are examples of true NOSs?
4. Which of the following storage device organizational schemes is the most secure and falut-tolerant?
5. Multitasking is ________________.
6. It is important to pre-configure all NICs in a server before initiating NOS installation. T or F
7. Cooperative multitasking is the method of computing where the NOS/OS maintains control of the CPU by assigning specific time slices to processes. T or F
8. If TCP/IP is one of the protocols installed on hour networking, which of the following items are important to define before Installation?
9. Which of the following are features of a NOS?
10. Verifying hardware compatibility prior to NOS installation is important because ____________.
11. Client networking software has a primary purpose of __________.
12. Which of the following installation methods do Windows 2000 Server & Novell NetWare have in common?
13. What is the function of a redirector?
14. What is the benefit of having an existing system on a computer when you are planning to install a NOS?
15. Which of the following are components of client network software?
16. Which of the following installation tasks are found in a Linus Red Hat 7.3 installation, but now found in a Windows or NetWare server installation?
17. Which of the following is the proper format for a UNC name?
18. Printer shares and directory shares are considered ____________.
19. What are common features in server network software for the management of resources?
20. Managing a network pointer remotely can encompass what administrative tasks?
21. Typically, NOSs include features of client networking software and server networking software to enable workstations and servers both to access and host resources. T or F
22. Which of the following is not an e-mail protocol?
23. Which of the following are important issues to address before initiating the setup of a NOS?
24. Windows directory shares can be mapped to local drive letters. T or F
25. A naming convention should be applied to which objects within a network’s namespace?
26. To hide a NetBIOS name, you must begin that name with a dollar sign ($). T or F
27. Which of the following NetBIOS names are legal?
28. Directory services perform the same kinds of functions on a network as UNC names or domain names. T or F
29. Which of the following network operating systems do(es) not include a built-in directory service?
30. Which of the following statements about UNC or NetBIOS names are true?

Answers Chapter 8

1. True
2. whether or not it serves as a domain controller or a member server
3. Novell Netware Windows Server 2000
4. Single-partition Single NOS
5. the ability to of an OS to support numerous processes at one time
6. True
7. False
8. IP address subnet mask
9. all
10. not all hardware is supported by the high-performance requirements of a NOS
11. accessing network shares
12. CD-ROM over the network
13. to forward requests to local or remote resource hosts
14. It can provide access to CD-ROM otherwise not supported by the NOS itself
15. Requester designator
16. boot loader choice
17. server\sharename
18. network services
19. access limitations user authentication auditing tools fault-tolerance (ALL)
20. delete print jobs restrict user access reorder print queue set access priority update drivers (ALL)
21. False
22. MAPI
23. responsibilities of the server naming conventions organize storage devices
24. True
25. servers & clients users director shares print shares
26. False
27. Computer17 Computer&17
28. False
29. Linus Windows NT 4.0
30. can not be more than 15 16 is system supplied suffix end with $ do not appear

Linux does not inc buklt-in support for NetBIOS names

Chapter 9=Understand Networks

1. _______ must be loaded on any Windows 2000 or Windows NT system to enable it to connect to a Novell network.
2. The four major networking product vendors are:
3. Of the 2compujting environments, ________ generates more network traffic.
4. A _______ -based multivendor network solution provides connectivity by loading multiple redirectors.
5. The __________- translates the request from the user into SQL in a environment.
6. A(n) _____ computer provides shared resources in a client/server network.
7. In a DBMS environment, the __________ is generally used for data storage.
8. In a client\server environment, the client must have as much or more RAM than the server. T or F
9. _________ computing is replacing ___ generally used for data storage.
10. A (n) ________ computing environment uses the processing power of only one option.
11. The _________ is the Microsoft implementation of a NetWare requester.
12. The NetWare operating system includes requesters for what type of clients?
13. Mac OS-X provides client software capable of accessing server resources in a Windows, Macintosh, or UNIX environment. T or F
14. A(n) computer uses shared resources on a network.
15. By using a _________ -based multivendor solution, different clients are easily connected to a server.
16. In a DBMS environment, the application is sometimes called the _________.
17. The Microsoft redirector that is included with the ____ operating system(s) allows users to share local resources.
18. __________ is an enhanced redirector from Microsoft that connects Windows 95 computers to NetWare 4.x and higher networks.
19. ______________ is a database language based on English
20. The WWW is an example of a _______computing environment.
21. Terminal services permit clients to run applications locally & access data. T or F
22. Which of the following types of clients are most likely to benefit from terminal services?
23. When sharing files and printers on a Linux machine, the best solutions is ______.
24. In which one of the following operating systems did NFS originate?
25. A new Web-based technology called ____, promises to permit any Web-enabled client to access shared network resources.

Chapter 9 Answers

1. NWLink CSNW
2. Microsoft Novell Apple Linux
3. centralized computing
4. client
5. client
6. server
7. server
8. false (pg359)
9. client server replacing centralized computing
10. centralized
11. CSNW
12. MS-DOS, OS/2, Win 98/NT/2000 True
13. True
14. client
15. server
16. front end
17. : All from Windows for Workgroups (3.11) on up
18. NDS
19. SQL
20. Client\Server
21. false
22. Thin Clients Older PC’s remotely attached pc
23. Samba
24. UNIX
25. WebDAV

Chapter 10 Solutions
Guide to Networking Essentials, 3e

Review Questions

1. One Registry file that stores security information in Windows NT is named ______.
2. What account(s) come predefined with Windows NT and Windows 2000 Server? (Choose all that apply.)
3. A currently unusable account that retains its security information if reactivated is said to be
4. Although Windows NT passwords may technically be up to ____ characters long, the dialog box only lets you enter ______ characters.
5. What is the maximum number of characters a Linux password may contain?
6. Which of the following statements is true for Windows NT? (Choose all that apply.)
7. In a server with a single network card, what is the maximum number of queued commands that you can have on the server without creating a bottleneck?
8. To scan for viruses as data enters the network from the Internet, you should implement a(n):?
9. Only Ethernet networks can experience collisions. True or false?
10. Which of the following tools best record failed logon attempts?
11. The ______ log in the Event Viewer is most useful for determining which drivers have been loaded.
12. A domain relationship in which only one domain has access to another domain’s resources is called what?
13. The default trust relationship enjoyed by all domains in an Active Directory is called:
14. The Network Monitor uses all available memory in the server, minus ______ for use by other programs.
15. The ______ is most useful when it comes to getting detailed information about a server’s hard drive.
16. Which kind of backup does not reset the archive bit? (Choose all that apply.)
17. All other things being equal, disk duplexing has a lower initial cost than disk mirroring. True or false?
18. Membership of the Everyone group includes all:
19. In a three-disk RAID 5 stripe set, where is the parity information?
20. You created a six-disk stripe set with parity. Each disk is 100 MB in size. How much room do you have in the stripe set for user data?
21. Windows NT and Windows 2000 Server support stripe sets with parity (RAID 5) of up to disks.
22. You have a data partition 500 MB in size (only 200 MB is filled) that you’d like to mirror. What size partition do you need to mirror it to?
23. For security reasons, you should delete the Everyone group. True or false?
24. You’re updating your Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on a Windows NT system. In order to back up all security data, you must enter the ______ command on the command line
25. System recovery procedures on Windows NT and Windows 2000 (including the ERD) are exactly the same. True or false?
26. Joe Brown has an account in the SALES domain but needs to store some information in the MANAGEMENT Windows NT Server domain. Which of the following actions do you need to take to make this possible? (Choose all that apply.)
27. The new network card you just installed does not work, and you suspect an interrupt conflict. Which of the following should give you the information you need to determine whether this is the case?
28. Which of the following Windows 2000 fault-tolerance features permits you to access user settings, data files, and applications from your home desktop on another Windows 2000 machine on a network?
29. Which of the following RAID levels are available on Windows 2000 and Windows NT servers? (Choose all that apply.)
30. Ideally, you should keep the Administrator account the same name and make the password something easy for you to remember in case you forget your account password. True or false?

Answers:

1. Security or SAM
2. Guest & Administrator
3. disabled
4. 128, 14
5. 256
6. Global groups may not contain other global groups there are 3 predefined global groups
7. one
8. Internet Gateway scanner
9. True
10. . event viewer
11. system
12. one way trust
13. universal
14. 8 MB
15. Performance monitor
16. copy differential
17. false
18. . user accounts (all members of the domain)
19. on all disks
20. 500MB
21. 32
22. 500MB
23. false
24. RDISKS/s
25. false
26. permits management to trust sales makes joe a member of a local groug MGT domain
27. system log
28. Intellimirro
29. Raid 0 Raid 1 Raid 5
30. false

Chapter 11 Solutions Guide to Networking Essentials, 3e Review Questions

1. A router using a ______ algorithm sends updates to other routers only when the network status changes.

2. The term ______refers to the phenomenon created when too many repeaters are interconnected in a network.

3. ______ bridges populate their bridging tables from information included in the frame specifically for bridging.

4. A ______ operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model and effectively doubles the length of the network.

5. A subnet is created when two or more independent networks are connected using routers. True or false?

6. A ______ protocol does not include Network layer information.

7. The ______ remote access protocol supports many network layer protocols, including TCP/IP and IPX/SPX.

8. At which layer of the OSI model do bridges operate?

9. Asynchronous communications take place when a start bit and a stop bit surround each byte of data. True or false?

10. A ______occurs when a network device malfunctions and the network floods.

11. Modem speed is measured in ______.

12. A router using the ______ algorithm periodically exchanges its entire routing table with other routers.

13. A ______ converts digital signals to analog signals and back again.

14. The ______ remote access protocol is used to connect computers to a network remotely and only supports TCP/IP.

15. The term baud is synonymous with the bit rate on an analog phone line. True or false?

16. Which of the networking devices defined in this chapter causes the least delay?

17. When a router is manually configured, it is using ______ routing.

18. A ______ can translate data from different physical media and network architectures.

19. A ______ protocol includes Network layer addressing information.

20. The ______ modem standard uses hardware compression.

21. ______ bridges populate their bridging table from the source and destination hardware addresses in the packet.

22. ______ communications rely on exact timing between the sending and receiving units.

23. _______ Digital Subscriber Line uses different speeds for uploading and downloading data.

24. Placing a bridge on the network easily remedies a broadcast storm. True or false?

25. Which networking device can translate data from one protocol to another?

26. A ______ modem is a network interface device that allows Internet access through CATV lines

Which method of switching provides for the fastest performance but might forward frames that contain errors?

28. Which of the following limitations applies to cable-based access to network services?

29. Which of the following limitations applies to DSL-based access to network services?

30. Switches are faster than bridges because switches use hardware to make forwarding decisions whereas bridges use software. True or false?

ANSWERS 11

1. link-state
2. propagation delay
3. Source routing
4. repeater
5. false
6. non-routeable
7. PPP
8. data link
9. True (could be more than one start and stop bit)
10. broadcast storm
11. bits per second
12. distance vector
13. modem
14. slip
15. false
16. repeater
17. static
18. router
19. routable
20. v42bis
21. transparent
22. synchronous
23. Asymmetric
24. false
25. gateway
26. cable
27. cut through
28. All users on the local CATV cable segment share the bandwidth
29. A connection is only possible within 17,500 to 23,000 feet of the local point of presence (POP).
30. true

Chapter 12 Solutions Guide to Networking Essentials, 3e

Review Questions

1. Optical carrier (OC) levels define the transmission rates of which WAN technology?

2. WAN connections differ so significantly from LAN connections that users are fully aware of the difference between accessing WAN resources as opposed to LAN resources. True or false?

3. Which WAN technology uses PADs?

4. What types of communication links can you use to create a WAN? (Choose all that apply.)

5. Which of the following statements best describes frame relay?

6. Which of the following supports analog WAN connections?

7. Which WAN technology is capable of transmission speeds in excess of 100 Mbps?

8. WANs are created to broaden the resources of the LAN and to improve the communications of an organization. True or false?

9. Which WAN technology was designed specifically to replace the analog telephone system?

10. Why is a nondedicated PSTN line such a poor choice for WAN connections? (Choose all that apply.)

11. Which are important considerations when planning to deploy a PSTN link? (Choose all that apply.)

12. Of the listed WAN technology high-speed links, which is the most widely used?

13. A DDS line offers point-to-point synchronous communication links with what transmission rates? (Choose all that apply.)

14. Digital lines offer what level of error-free transmission?
15. What type of device is required to connect to a dedicated digital communications line?
16. Which are characteristics of a T1 line? (Choose all that apply.)

17. Which statement best describes multiplexing technology?

18. How many channels are in a full T1?

19. How many T1s comprise a DS-1C?

20. Which WAN technologies are limited by the transmission rates of fiber-optic cable? (Choose all that apply.)

21. The Internet is an example of what type of network?

22. Packet switching segments the original data into little chunks before transmitting it. True or false?

23. Which of the following WAN technologies uses PVCs? (Choose all that apply.)

24. What is the limitation of FDDI?

25. What is the basic transmission rate for an E1 connection?

26. Which WAN technology supports the highest maximum bandwidth?

27. Which of these benefits apply to an Internet-based VPN, assuming that remote users dial into an ISP with a local telephone call, no matter where they’re located? (Choose all that apply.)

28. Which of these protocols is most secure for VPN access?

29. Out of the box, only Windows 2000 machines can use L2TP and IPSec for VPN access. True or false?

Chapter 12 ANSWERS

1. SONET
2. false
3. X25
4. a, b, c, d, e
5. It transmits variable-length packets at the Data Link layer through the most cost-effective path
6. PSTN
7. ATM
8. False
9. ISDN
10. Limited bandwidth inconsistent quality orig designed for voice-only communication
11. all answers
12. T1
13. all but E
14. 99%
15. CSU/DSU
16. all answers
17. It enables multiple communications to travel simultaneously over the same cable segment
18. 24
19. 2
20. ATM SONET
21. packet-switching
22. True
23. frame ATM
24. 100-kilometers transmission limit
25. 2.048 MPBS
26. ATM
27. Keeps communications costs down Provide easy access for any user with an ISP connection
28. L2TP
29. TRUE

Chapter 13 Solutions
Guide to Networking Essentials, 3e

Review Questions

1. Which of these services is available from Microsoft for free on the Web? (Choose all that apply.)
2. A(n) is able to not only determine whether a cable break or short exists but also approximately how far down the cable it is.
3. At what level of the OSI model do most networking problems occur?
4. A(n) __________ is a simple network troubleshooting device that measures voltage, resistance, and current flow on a cable.
5. A(n) __________ is a simple network troubleshooting device that measures voltage, resistance, and current flow on a cable.
6. Which of the following options represents the easiest way to correct a problem with a computer?
7. What is the first thing to remember in network troubleshooting?
8. The structured approach is the five-step troubleshooting method recommended by Microsoft. True or false?
9. Which network troubleshooting tool is a software-based solution?
10. ___________________ is the best way to prevent network problems.
11. __________provides CD-ROMs on a monthly basis to assist in troubleshooting.
12. Which tool discussed in this chapter gives you the most detailed information about network traffic and trends?
13. What are the five steps in the network troubleshooting approach described in this chapter?
14. What is the most common network problem you’re likely to encounter?
15. A __________ can be used to ensure no data loss in the event of a power fluctuation or failure.
16. What is the second troubleshooting step you should always take?
17. An SNMP network manager program reads the __________ in each networking device to determine its status.
18. When measuring network performance, you need a baseline as a point of reference. True or false?
19. ________________ is the TCP/IP protocol used to configure and watch network resources.
20. The MSDN service provides software updates by modem. True or false?
21. What condition occurred when the resistance between the shielding and the conductive core of coaxial cable reads zero (0)?
22. What condition occurred when the resistance between the conductor on one end of a cable and the other end of the same cable reads infinite?
23. What condition occurred when the resistance measured for a terminator for 10Base2 or 10Base5 cable reads infinite?
24. What combination of diagnostic tools can detect a crimp in a coaxial cable? (Choose all that apply.)
25. An advanced network monitoring protocol that has greater capabilities than SNMP is:
26. For which of the following network conditions must you use a protocol analyzer or network monitor for further diagnosis? (Choose all that apply.)
27. At what layer of the OSI model does a DVM or VOM operate?
28. At what layer of the OSI model does a TDR or oscilloscope operate?
29. At what layers of the OSI model does a protocol analyzer operate?
30. Pre-emptive troubleshooting is preferable to actual troubleshooting. True or false?

Answers

1. TechNet Microsoft Knowledge Base Microsoft Developer’s Network
2. time-domain reflectometer
3. physical
4. volt-ohm meter
5. account configuration performance security fault management
6. rebooting the computer
7. stay calm eliminate user error
8. true
9. network monitor
10. thorough planning
11. TechNet
12. protocol analyzer
13. all but c & d
14. cabling problems
15. UPS
16. verifying physical connections
17. MLB
18. True
19. SNMP
20. false
21. short circuit
22. open circuit cable break
23. false terminator
24. oscilloscope TDR
25. RMON
26. slow network performance high rate of transmission errors
27. physical
28. physical
29. Layers 2 through 7, given sufficient protocol decodes
30. true