Server 2003 FINAL

Server 2003 FINAL

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. A DHCP server that is located on a member server and that is a member of a workgroup must be authorized before it can respond to DHCPDISCOVER messages?

____ 2. The DHCP Server service is installed on Microsoft Windows Server 2003 by default.

____ 3. A DHCP database is a distributed database similar to a DNS database?

____ 4. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 DHCP Server supports both automatic and manual backups?

____ 5. When you install Microsoft Windows Server 2003, DNS is installed automatically.

____ 6. Host computers typically use iterative queries.

____ 7. A Microsoft Windows Server 2003 domain that utilizes an Active Directory–integrated DNS zone can have a secondary DNS server running on a member server.

____ 8. When a file that has been encrypted using EFS is copied from one folder on an NTFS file system drive to another folder on an NTFS drive, the file will remain encrypted?

____ 9. Communication partners using IPSec require identical security policies.

____ 10. SUS can be installed only on an NTFS file system partition.

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 11. You administer a network that has 75 client computers configured to dynamically receive IP address configuration. The DHCP server has been configured using a DHCP scope with a configured IP address range of 170.34.32.1 to 170.34.32.255 and a 24-bit mask. The network consists of a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 domain and Microsoft Windows XP clients configured as DHCP clients. Users of the client computers cannot access other computers or resources on the network. Which of the following options should you use to resolve the problem?

a.	Activate the scope.
b.	Reboot the DHCP server.
c.	Increase lease duration.
d.	Change the ending IP address to 170.34.38.255.
e.	Re-create the scope using a subnet mask of 255.255.244.0.

____ 12. You are the administrator of a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network. The network consists of two Windows Server 2003 computers named Toledo and Cleveland and 275 Microsoft Windows XP Professional computers. Toledo is a DHCP server. The DHCP server provides the TCP/IP configuration for all Microsoft Windows XP computers. Toledo and Cleveland have manually configured IP addresses. Toledo frequently hosts multicast-based video and audio conferences. You want to dynamically allocate multicast addresses. How should you configure the network?

a.	On the DHCP server, create and activate a multicast scope with a range of Class D addresses.
b.	On Toledo, configure routing and remote access to enable the Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) routing protocol in proxy mode on the LAN interface.
c.	Enable router discovery on the Windows XP Professional computers.
d.	Add a route for network destination 224.0.0.0 and mask 224.0.0.0 on the Windows XP Professional computers.

____ 13. As a network administrator, you are deploying DHCP on your Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network. You want to ensure that all of your print devices receive the same IP address each time they initialize. What step should you take to ensure that DHCP assigns the same address to the print devices?

a.	Configure client reservations for each print device interface.
b.	Configure a lease that will never expire.
c.	Configure address exclusion for the print devices.
d.	Statically configure the IP address for all print devices.

____ 14. Secure dynamic updates are available in which type of DNS zone?

a.	Standard primary
b.	Secondary
c.	Active Directory–integrated
d.	Standard primary and secondary

____ 15. Which DHCP management process is used to recover unused space in the DHCP database?

a.	Reconciling
b.	Compacting
c.	Restoring
d.	Removing

____ 16. You are a network administrator of a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 domain that is configured to use secure dynamic updates for DNS. The network clients have just been updated from Microsoft Windows NT 4 to Microsoft Windows 2000, and the DHCP server has been set to never update DNS on behalf of clients (the DHCP server’s original setting was to always update DNS). You notice that the Windows 2000 clients do not update DNS. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem?

a.	The DNS zones are incorrectly set to Active Directory–integrated.
b.	The DHCP server is not a member of the DnsUpdateProxy security group.
c.	The DNS server is not a member of the DnsUpdateProxy security group.
d.	The Windows 2000 clients should be upgraded to Microsoft Windows XP Professional.

____ 17. Your DHCP database is corrupt, and you are forced to perform a manual restore. The database restore was successful. The week after the restore, you ask one of your junior administrators to make a change to the DHCP server. The junior administrator is not a member of the Administrators group, but has been given permissions to administer the DHCP database. Your assistant reports that she is not able to administer the DHCP database. What is the most likely reason the assistant cannot administer the database?

a.	Security credentials are not backed up by DHCP. After you perform a restore, you must reconfigure security credentials associated with the DHCP database.
b.	Only members of the Administrators group can administer the DHCP server.
c.	You incorrectly assigned permissions to the junior administrator’s user account.
d.	The junior administrator must be a member of the Domain Administrator group to administer the DHCP server.

____ 18. While reviewing DHCP server logs, you notice several entries with event ID 15, which indicates that a lease was denied. You would like to determine how long this has been occurring and what is causing this error. The DHCP server has been online for only three weeks. To begin troubleshooting this problem, you ask your assistant to provide you with the DHCP logs from the previous three weeks. Your DHCP server has logging enabled with the default configuration. Your assistant reports that he cannot locate DHCP logs for the past three weeks. What is preventing your assistant from obtaining these logs?

a.	The assistant user account does not have adequate privileges.
b.	The DHCP server is not a member of the DnsUpdateProxy security group.
c.	A DHCP server with default configuration keeps logs for only seven days.
d.	DHCP logs are erased every 24 hours.

____ 19. You are the administrator of a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 domain. Your domain has three DNS servers, which are located on domain controllers. Currently, you can create updates on only one of the DNS servers. You would like to be able to make changes to the DNS database on any of the three DNS servers, and you want these changes to replicate to all other DNS servers in your domain. You should make which configuration change?

a.	Convert all DNS servers to primary DNS servers.
b.	Convert all DNS server zones to Active Directory–integrated zones.
c.	This cannot be accomplished.
d.	Create forwarding entries on the DNS servers with secondary zone files.

____ 20. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 has three options for Active Directory–integrated zone replication. Which of the following is not available as a replication option in Windows Server 2003?

a.	Replicate to all DNS servers in the forest.
b.	Replicate to all domain controllers in the domain.
c.	Replicate to all domain controllers that are DNS servers in the same domain.
d.	Replicate to all domain controllers that are also DNS servers in the entire forest.

____ 21. Your Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network has one primary DNS server and two secondary DNS servers. Several changes are made to the zone database on the primary server. How will the secondary DNS servers learn about the changes to the primary server’s zone database?

a.	The master server will notify the secondary servers of zone changes.
b.	The update will occur only when the zone refresh interval expires.
c.	The DNS Server service is restarted on a secondary server.
d.	A zone transfer is manually initiated on the secondary servers.
e.	A zone transfer is automatically initiated every 60 minutes.

____ 22. You administer a private Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network that has a standard primary DNS server and a standard secondary DNS server. Both servers are used to resolve internal DNS names. Your network has an external DNS server that is separated from the internal network by a firewall. Internal users complain that they cannot resolve names on the Internet. What should you do to resolve this problem?

a.	Edit the Cache.dns file.
b.	Configure the internal DNS servers to forward requests to the external DNS server.
c.	Remove the firewall.
d.	Configure a PTR record to the external DNS server on the internal DNS servers.

____ 23. Which DNS management tool can be used to verify the consistency of a particular group of DNS resource records on multiple DNS servers?

a.	DNSLint
b.	Dnscmd
c.	Nslookup
d.	Ipconfig

____ 24. Which command-line tool can be used to configure and analyze system security by comparing current settings against at least one template?

a.	Secedit utility
b.	Gpupdate utility
c.	Analyze utility
d.	Ipconfig utility

____ 25. The Secedit command-line tool provides an administrator with the ability to perform functions similar to those that can be performed using the Security Configuration And Analysis snap-in. Which function cannot be performed using Secedit?

a.	Configure
b.	Authenticate
c.	Analyze
d.	Generate rollback

____ 26. Your domain consists of servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003, clients running Microsoft Windows XP Professional, and clients running Microsoft Windows 98. Your company recently started a confidential research project and all network communication related to this project must be encrypted using IPSec. All of the client computers for employees working on this project run Windows 98. After installing the server for the project, you configure the Secure Server (Require Security) policy and apply the policy to the server using the local security policies. You then apply the Client (Respond Only) policy to the OU that contains all of the client computers that are involved in this project. You discover that none of the Windows 98 clients are able to communicate with the server. What additional step must you take to allow the clients running Windows 98 to communicate with the server?

a.	Apply the Server (Request Security) policy to the client computers.
b.	Download the legacy IPSec client for Windows 98 from the Microsoft Web site.
c.	Start the IPSec Policy Agent.
d.	Install Network Monitor on the client computers running Windows 98.

____ 27. You are the network administrator for the contoso.com domain. Your network consists of a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 domain. Your corporate security policy requires that all communication be encrypted using IPSec. Your company has a partnership with Litware, Inc. Litware users must communicate with Contoso users; however, the Litware users are not members of the Contoso domain, and you are not certain about which operating system the Litware computers run. How should you configure authentication so that all communication is encrypted?

a.	Configure both Contoso and Litware policies to use X.509 certificates for authentication.
b.	Configure both Contoso and Litware policies to use NTLM for authentication.
c.	Configure Contoso to use Kerberos for authentication, and configure Litware to use X.509 certificates for authentication.
d.	Use the default authentication settings for both Litware and Contoso.

____ 28. You configured all of your clients running Microsoft Windows XP Professional and servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 to automatically interact with the Windows Update Web site. You notice that all of the client computers have an informative message stating, “Updates for your computer have been downloaded from Windows Update. Click here to review these updates and to install them.” It was not your intention to allow users to decide which updates to install or when the updates will be installed. How can you configure your client computers to maintain the latest service packs and security patches without user interaction?

a.	Use Group Policy to enable the No Auto-Restart option for all domain computers.
b.	Configure the Automatic Updates settings on the clients running Windows XP Professional and the servers running Windows Server 2003 to Automatically Download The Updates And Install Them On The Schedule That I Specify.
c.	Configure the Automatic Updates settings only on the servers that run Windows Server 2003 to Automatically Download The Updates, And Install Them On The Schedule That I Specify. The servers will then update the clients when they restart.
d.	Have the users log on as local administrators, and the updates will be automatically installed.

____ 29. What is the recommended minimum level of RAM for a SUS server?

a.	512 MB
b.	256 MB
c.	1 GB
d.	128 MB per SUS client

____ 30. You configured a SUS server to synchronize with the Windows Update site daily at 7:00 A.M., and you configured the server to store the updates locally. Your client computers are scheduled to run Automatic Updates at 12:00 P.M. daily while employees are at lunch. When you arrive at work at 8:00 A.M., one of your coworkers informs you that the contents of one of the SUS\Contents directories were accidentally deleted and that a critical security update was released this morning. The client computers must receive the security update as soon as possible. With the least amount of administrative effort, which steps could you take to allow the client computers to download the critical update from the SUS server at the scheduled 12:00 P.M. time?

a.	Open the Software Update Services Administration Web page, and choose Schedule Synchronization from the Synchronize Server options. Schedule the SUS server to synchronize at 12:00 P.M.
b.	Open the Software Update Services Administration Web page, and choose Synchronize Now from the Synchronize Server options.
c.	Copy the SUS\Contents file from one of the SUS clients that successfully synchronized with the SUS server prior to the deletion of the Contents folder.
d.	Manually configure all client computers to contact the Windows Update site for Automatic Updates.

Server 2003 FINAL

Answer Section

TRUE/FALSE

1. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers that are part of an Active Directory domain must be authorized. There is no authorization process for DHCP servers that are members of a workgroup. (Discussion starts on page 13.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 1

2. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Server service can be installed through Add And Remove Windows components in the Control Panel or through the Configure Your Server page. (Discussion starts on page 13.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 1

3. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) database is a dynamic database that is updated as clients are assigned or as they release Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration parameters. (Discussion starts on page 39.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 2

4. ANS: T

EXPLANATION: (Discussion starts on page 40.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 2

5. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: DNS is not installed by default when you install Windows Server 2003. It can be installed through the Configure My Server page and through Add And Remove Programs in Control Panel. (Discussion starts on page 65.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 3

6. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: Host computers typically request recursive queries. (Discussion starts on page 84.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 3

7. ANS: T

EXPLANATION: Windows Server 2003 supports sending a copy of the DNS zone file to a secondary server when using Active Directory–integrated zones. (Discussion starts on page 69.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 3

8. ANS: T

EXPLANATION: Copies of files that are encrypted using Encrypting File System (EFS) will retain their encryption attributes if they are copied or backed up to another location on an NTFS volume. (Discussion starts on page 161.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 5

9. ANS: F

EXPLANATION: Communicating peers using Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) do not require identical security policies. Both peer computers must have a security policy with enough negotiation options to establish a common set of requirements for communication. (Discussion starts on page 180.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 6

10. ANS: T

EXPLANATION: (Discussion starts on page 218.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: A scope must be activated before it can be used to assign addresses, and a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server must be authorized if it is part of an Active Directory domain. Increasing the lease duration or re-creating the scope does not affect this situation. (Discussion starts on page 16.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 1

12. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) has been extended to support the assignment of Class D multicast addresses. You should create a multicast scope. The DHCP server would then dynamically assign multicast IP addresses to all clients that were configured to receive a multicast address. (Discussion starts on page 18.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 1

13. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: Client reservations map a specific IP addresses to a specific hardware address. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) then assigns the same IP address to each print device for each mapping. (Discussion starts on page 18.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 1

14. ANS: C

EXPLANATION: (Discussion starts on page 35.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 2

15. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: To recover used space in the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) database, the DHCP database is dynamically compacted. (Discussion starts on page 43.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 2

16. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: With secure dynamic updates, only the registering client can modify Domain Name System (DNS) records. Because the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server initially registered these clients—unless the DHCP server was a member of the DnsUpdateProxy security group—the DHCP server would be the only computer with the right to update DNS records. Adding the DHCP server to the DnsUpdateProxy security group allows the Windows 2000 clients to update DNS. (Discussion starts on page 36.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 2

17. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: When the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DCHP) database is backed up either manually or automatically, the security credentials are not saved and must be reconfigured if a restore is required. (Discussion starts on page 40.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 2

18. ANS: C

EXPLANATION: When you enable logging, the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server creates log files named DhcpSrvLog-day.log, where day is a three-letter abbreviation that represents the day the log was created; for example, a log created on Sunday would be named DhcpSrvLog-Sun.log. For this reason, the default configuration will keep only seven days of DHCP logs. For example, on Sunday the DHCP log from the previous Sunday is overwritten. (Discussion starts on page 49.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 2

19. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: Active Directory–integrated zones use multimaster replication, which allows updates to the DNS database at any domain controller. (Discussion starts on page 69.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 3

20. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: Windows Server 2003 has three options available for replication between domain controllers. No option exists for replicating between all DNS servers in the domain because secondary DNS servers that might be located on member servers are not capable of receiving Active Directory updates. (Discussion starts on page 69.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 3

21. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: When a primary server receives updates to the zone file, it notifies the secondary servers that it has changes. The secondary servers then request a zone transfer. (Discussion starts on page 89.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 3

22. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: Configuring internal DNS servers to forward queries to an external DNS server solves this problem. Forwarders provide a method to manage name resolution for names outside of your network. (Discussion starts on page 94.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 3

23. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: DNSLint is a tool that is used to verify the consistency of a particular set of records on multiple Domain Name System (DNS) servers. (Discussion starts on page 106.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 4

24. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: (Discussion starts on page 166.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 5

25. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: The Secedit tool has the capability to perform the following functions: configure, analyze, import, export, validate, and generate rollback. (Discussion starts on page 166.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 5

26. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is available in Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003. Microsoft operating systems prior to Windows 2000 must download the legacy IPSec client from the Microsoft Web site. (Discussion starts on page 179.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 6

27. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) relies on authentication to provide secure communication. When the communication must occur between systems that might not use Kerberos for authentication, X.509 certificates can be used. X.509 certificates are often used on open networks, such as the Internet, and on intranets and extranets. (Discussion starts on page 195.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 6

28. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: Three settings on the Automatic Updates page control how updates will be handled. The first option is Notify Me Before Downloading Any Updates And Notify Me Again Before Installing Them On My Computer. The second option is Download The Updates Automatically And Notify Me When They Are Ready To Be Installed The third option is Automatically Download The Updates, And Install Them On The Schedule That I Specify. This third option allows the client computers to automatically download and install updates without user interaction. (Discussion starts on page 215.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Chapter 7

29. ANS: A

EXPLANATION: (Discussion starts on page 218.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Demonstration REF: Chapter 7

30. ANS: B

EXPLANATION: Choosing the Synchronize Now option allows the Software Update Services (SUS) server to download a new copy of the Windows Update files. Manually configuring each client computer to contact the Windows Update site also resolves the problem, but this option involves much more administrative effort. (Discussion starts on page 224.)

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Chapter 7

Network Security Plus Final Questions and Answers

Printed from www.StudyDroid.com

security final
vainvern
Front	Back
. ____ is the presentation of credentials or identification, typically performed when logging on to a system.	Identification
is the verification of the credentials to ensure that they are genuine and not fabricated.	authentication
____ is granting permission for admittance.	authorization
____ is the right to use specific resources.	access
There are several types of OTPs. The most common type is a ____ OTP.	time-synchronized
A ____ fingerprint scanner requires the user to place the entire thumb or finger on a small oval window on the scanner.	static
A ____ fingerprint scanner has a small slit or opening. Instead of placing the entire finger on the scanner the finger is swiped across the opening.	dynamic
____ time is the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released.	dwell
. ____, such as using an OTP (what a person has) and a password (what a person knows), enhances security, particularly if different types of authentication methods are used.	two factor authentication
____ requires that a user present three different types of authentication credentials.	three factor authentication
____ is a feature of Windows that is intended to provide users with control of their digital identities while helping them to manage privacy.	windows cardspace
____ is a decentralized open source FIM that does not require specific software to be installed on the desktop.	openid
____ is an authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) and used to verify the identity of networked users.	keberos
____ is an industry standard protocol specification that forwards username and password information to a centralized server.	tacacs+
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) created a standard for directory services known as ____.	x.500
The ____, sometimes called X.500 Lite, is a simpler subset of DAP.	Ldap
The management protocol of IEEE 802.1x that governs the interaction between the system, authenticator, and RADIUS server is known as the ____.	eap
____ is a very basic authentication protocol that was used to authenticate a user to a remote access server or to an Internet service provider (ISP).	pap
____ refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables access to remote users to a local internal network.	ras
. A(n) ____ uses an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private network.	vpn
A(n) ____ is the end of the tunnel between VPN devices.	endpoint
In information security, a ____ is the likelihood that a threat agent will exploit a vulnerability.	risk
____ generally denotes a potential negative impact to an asset.	risk
The goal of ____ is to better understand who the attackers are, why they attack, and what types of attacks might occur.	threat modeling
Known as ____, this in effect takes a snapshot of the security of the organization as it now stands.	vulnerability apprasial
The ____ is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.	single loss expentancuy (SLE)
The ____ is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period.	Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
In a ____, the risk is spread over all of the members of the pool.	risk retention pool
Identifying vulnerabilities through a(n) ____ determines the current security weaknesses that could expose assets to threats.	Velnerability appraisal
Most communication in TCP/IP involves the exchange of information between a program running on one device (known as a ____) and the same or a corresponding process running on another device.	process
TCP/IP uses a numeric value as an identifier to applications and services on the systems. These are known as the ____.	port number
____ are typically used to determine the state of a port to know what applications are running and could be exploited.	Port scanners
A(n) ____ port means that the application or service assigned to that port is listening.	open
A(n) ____ port indicates that no process is listening at this port.	closed
A(n) ____ port means that the host system does not reply to any inquiries to this port number.	blocked
____ are software tools that can identify all the systems connected to a network.	network mappers
____ provides support to IP in the form of ICMP messages that allow different types of communication to occur between IP devices.	icmp
The key feature of a protocol analyzer is that it places the computer's network interface card (NIC) adapter into ____, meaning that NIC does not ignore packets intended for other systems and shows all network traffic.	promiscuous mode
____ is a generic term that refers to a range of products that look for vulnerabilities in networks or systems.	vulnerability scanner
____ is a “common language” for the exchange of information regarding security vulnerabilities.	oval
____ programs use the file of hashed passwords and then attempts to break the hashed passwords offline.	password cracker
____ is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating a malicious attack instead of just scanning for vulnerabilities.	penetration testing
____ is the process of assigning and revoking privileges to objects; that is, it covers the procedures of managing object authorizations.	privilege managment
The ____ is typically defined as the person responsible for the information, who determines the level of security needed for the data, and delegates security duties as required	owner
The ____ is the individual to whom day-to-day actions have been assigned by the owner and who periodically reviews security settings and maintains records of access by end users.	custodian
The Windows file and folder ____ permission allows files or folders to be opened as read-only and to be copied.	read
The Windows file and folder ____ permission allows the creation of files and folders, and allows data to be added to or removed from files.	write
The Microsoft ____ infrastructure is a mechanism to centrally configure and secure a common set of computer and user configurations and security settings to Windows servers, desktops, and users in an AD.	group policy
____ is part of the pre-trial phase of a lawsuit in which each party through the law of civil procedure can request documents and other evidence from other parties or can compel the production of evidence by using a subpoena.	discovery
ILM strategies are typically recorded in ____ policies.	storage and retention
____ assigns a level of business importance, availability, sensitivity, security and regulation requirements to data.	data classification
____ means permissions given to a higher level “parent” will also be inherited by a lower level “child.”	inheritance
____ is the process for generating, transmitting, storing, analyzing, and disposing of computer security log data.	log managment
____ servers are intermediate hosts through which Web sites are accessed.	proxy
____ logs can be used to determine whether new IP addresses are attempting to probe the network and if stronger firewall rules are necessary to block them.	firewall
A(n) ____ is an occurrence within a software system that is communicated to users or other programs outside the operating system.	event
____ are operational actions that are performed by the operating system, such as shutting down the system or starting a service.	system events
Logs based on ____ are the second common type of security-related operating system logs.	audit records
____ refers to a methodology for making changes and keeping track of those changes, often manually.	change managment
. ____ monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.	anomaly based
____ monitoring compares activities against a predefined signature.	signature-based
A ____ baseline is a reference set of data established to create the “norm” of performance for a system or systems.	performance baseline
A ____ monitor is typically a low-level system program that uses a notification engine designed to monitor and track down hidden activity on a desktop system, server, or even personal digital assistant (PDA) or cell phone.	system
Changing the original text to a secret message using cryptography is known as ____.	encryption
Data that is in an unencrypted form is called ____ data.	cleartext
____, also called a one-way hash, is a process for creating a unique “signature” for a set of data.	hashing
____ is a relatively recent cryptographic hash function that has received international recognition and adoption by standards organizations.	whirlpool
Symmetric encryption is also called ____ key cryptography.	private
The simplest type of stream cipher is a ____ cipher. It simply substitutes one letter or character for another.	permutation
A ____ substitution cipher maps a single plaintext character to multiple ciphertext characters.	homoaplhabetic
A ____ cipher rearranges letters without changing them.	transposition
A ____ cipher manipulates an entire block of plaintext at one time.	block
____ was approved by the NIST in late 2000 as a replacement for DES.	aes
____ is a block cipher that processes blocks of 64 bits.	rc2
The ____ algorithm dates back to the early 1990s and is used in European nations.	idea
____ encryption uses two keys instead of one. These keys are mathematically related and are known as the public key and the private key.	asymmetric
The asymmetric algorithm ____ was published in 1977 and patented by MIT in 1983.	rsa
The strength of the ____ algorithm is that it allows two users to share a secret key securely over a public network.	diffie-hellman
A similar program known as ____ is a PGP open-source product.	gpg
Microsoft's ____ is a cryptography system for Windows operating systems that use the Windows NTFS file system.	efs
Cryptography can also be applied to entire disks. This is known as ____ encryption.	whole disk
To protect data stored on a hard drive, Microsoft Windows Vista includes ____ drive encryption.	bitlocker
____ is a hardware-enabled data encryption feature.	bitlocker
____ is essentially a chip on the motherboard of the computer that provides cryptographic services.	tpm
Some organizations set up a subordinate entity, called a ____, to handle some CA tasks such as processing certificate requests and authenticating users.	registration authority
____ digital certificates are issued by a CA or RA directly to individuals.	personal
____ digital certificates are often issued from a Web server to a client, although they can be distributed by any type of server, such as a mail server.	server
When Bob sends one digital certificate to Alice along with his message, that is known as a ____ certificate.	single sided
In one type of trust model, ____ trust, a relationship exists between two individuals because one person knows the other person.	direct
A(n) ____ trust refers to a situation in which two individuals trust each other because each trusts a third party.	third party
The ____ trust model assigns a single hierarchy with one master CA called the root.	hierarchical
The ____ trust model has multiple CAs that sign digital certificates.	distributed
The ____ trust model is the basis for digital certificates issued by Internet users.	distributed
With the ____ trust model, there is one CA that acts as a “facilitator” to interconnect all other CAs.	bridge
The ____ provides recommended baseline security requirements for the use and operation of CA, RA, and other PKI components.	certificate policy
A ____ describes in detail how the CA uses and manages certificates.	certificat practice statement
____ refers to a situation in which keys are managed by a third party, such as a trusted CA.	key escrow
____ is used to connect to an FTP server, much in the same way that HTTP links to a Web server.	ftp
____ is a protocol that guarantees privacy and data integrity between applications communicating over the Internet.	tls
The TLS ____ Protocol allows authentication between the server and the client and the negotiation of an encryption algorithm and cryptographic keys before any actual data is transmitted.	handshake
The TLS ____ Protocol is used to encapsulate higher-level protocols.	record
____ is actually a suite of three utilities--slogin, scp, and ssh--that are secure versions of the unsecure UNIX counterpart utilities rlogin, rcp, and rsh.	ssh
____ is the most widely deployed tunneling protocol.	pptp
One variation of PPP that is used by broadband Internet providers with DSL or cable modem connections is ____.	PPPoE
One of the most common e-mail transport protocols is ____.	s/mine
A Class ____ fire includes common combustibles.	A
____ systems spray the fire area with pressurized water.	water sprinkler
____ systems disperse a fine, dry powder over the fire.	dry chemical
____ fire suppression systems do not harm people, documents, or electrical equipment in the room.	clean agent
In a(n) ____ server cluster, a standby server exists only to take over for another server in the event of its failure.	asymmetric
In a(n) ____ server cluster, every server in the cluster performs useful work. If one server fails, the remaining servers continue to perform their normal work as well as that of the failed server.	symmetric
A system of hard drives based on redundancy can be achieved through using a technology known as ____, which uses multiple hard disk drives for increased reliability and performance.	raid
____ partitions the storage space of each hard drive into smaller sections, which can be as small as 512 bytes or as large as several megabytes.	striping
Disk ____ involves connecting multiple drives in the server to the same disk controller card.	mirroring
Instead of having a single disk controller card that is attached to all hard drives, disk ____ has separate cards for each disk.	duplexing
RAID Level 5 distributes ____ data (a type of error checking) across all drives instead of using a separate drive to hold the parity error checking information.	parity
A(n) ____ UPS is always running off its battery while the main power runs the battery charger.	online
A ____ site is generally run by a commercial disaster recovery service that allows a business to continue computer and network operations to maintain business continuity	hot
A ____ site provides office space but the customer must provide and install all the equipment needed to continue operations.	cold
A ____ site has all of the equipment installed but does not have active Internet or telecommunications facilities, and does not have current backups of data.	warm
Backup software can internally designate which files have already been backed up by setting a(n) ____ in the properties of the file.	archive bit
The ____ is defined as the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between backups.	rpo
The ____ is simply the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.	rto
An alternative to using magnetic tape is to back up to magnetic disk, such as a large hard drive or RAID configuration. This is known as ____.	D2D
A solution that combines the best of magnetic tape and magnetic disk is ____. This technology uses the magnetic disk as a temporary storage area.	d2d2t
. ____ is the application of science to questions that are of interest to the legal profession.	forensics
At its core, a(n) ____ policy is a document that outlines the protections that should be enacted to ensure that the organization's assets face minimal risks.	security
A ____ is a collection of requirements specific to the system or procedure that must be met by everyone.	standard
A ____ is a collection of suggestions that should be implemented.	guideline
A ____ is a document that outlines specific requirements or rules that must be met.	policy
____ determines the items that have a positive economic value and may include data, hardware, personnel, physical assets, and software.	asset identification
____ takes a snapshot of the security of the organization as it now stands.	vulnerability apprasial
____ involves determining the damage that would result from an attack and the likelihood that the vulnerability is a risk to the organization.	risk assesment
A(n) ____ policy establishes guidelines for effectively reducing the threat of computer viruses on the organization's network and computers.	anti-virus
A(n) ____ policy outlines the requirements and provides the authority for an information security team to conduct audits and risk assessments, investigate incidents, to ensure conformance to security policies, or to monitor user activity.	audit vulnerability scanning
A(n) ____ policy defines requirements for storing and retrieving database usernames and passwords.	database credential coding
A(n) ____ policy helps employees determine what information sent or received by e-mail should be retained and for how long.	email retention
A(n) ____ policy establishes requirements for Remote Access IPSec or L2TP Virtual Private Network (VPN) connections to the organization's network.	vpn security
Many organizations have a ____ policy that outlines how the organization uses personal information it collects.	personally identifiable information
Most organizations have a ____ policy that addresses the disposal of resources that are considered confidential.	disposal and destruction
A ____ policy is designed to produce a standardized framework for classifying information assets.	classification of information
____ refers to a methodology for making changes and keeping track of those changes, often manually.	change managment
____ are a person's fundamental beliefs and principles used to define what is good, right, and just.	values
____ are values that are attributed to a system of beliefs that help the individual distinguish right from wrong.	morals
____ can be defined as the study of what a group of people understand to be good and right behavior and how people make those judgments.	ethics
____ relies on tricking and deceiving someone to provide secure information.	social engineering
One of the most common forms of social engineering is ____, or sending an e-mail or displaying a Web announcement that falsely claims to be from a legitimate enterprise in an attempt to trick the user into surrendering private information.	phishing